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Op-Amp and resistor network problem

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electronZ

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Hello all!

I hope you are all staying safe :)

I have an understanding problem: V(n007) voltage!
I can calculate V(n002) and the output is simply V(n007)*2 = 2.3 V.
But, how to calculate V(n007)?

See simulation in attached picture.

Thanks a lot.
 

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  • OpAmpResistor.png
    OpAmpResistor.png
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Solution
Hi
First, because the stimulus I1 is a DC value, I'll conveniently ignore the effect of C1.

V(n002) is then I1*(R2+[R1|R3])
In fact, it is approximately true we can ignore R1 and R3 then we have
V(n002) ~= I1*R2 = 1.144 V

This is so because of the 'golden rules': The op amp feedback keeps V- at zero, and essentially no current flows into the input pins.

Because R3<<R1, it is not worth finding the exact value of this parallel network, it will be 10 Ohms to within a very close tolerance - but also 10R << 71500 so the feedback at DC is about the same as R2 alone.
-----
Now for V(n007).

First, ignore R10 because it is directly across V1 and V1 does not care.
Then we can find the "Thevenin equivalent" circuit for V1 feeding R5 & R6, call...
Hello all!

I hope you are all staying safe :)

I have an understanding problem: V(n007) voltage!
I can calculate V(n002) and the output is simply V(n007)*2 = 2.3 V.
But, how to calculate V(n007)?

See simulation in attached picture.

Thanks a lot.
1627414482064.png


Vn007, since no current (ideal OpAmp, or very very small) flows into the + input
of OpAmp we can ignore that. Also since R10 is in parallel with a V source we
can ignore that. So write a Thevinin loop starting with V1 all the way to Vn002 back
to ground and solve.


Regards, Dana.
 

V(noo7) is determined by the combination of V(noow) and the V1 voltage.

Do you know how to write node loop equations or do superposition calculations?
(I probably would use superposition).
 

Thank you very much - both of you. I will have to do some reading, it is long time ago... Am getting old :(
 

Hi
First, because the stimulus I1 is a DC value, I'll conveniently ignore the effect of C1.

V(n002) is then I1*(R2+[R1|R3])
In fact, it is approximately true we can ignore R1 and R3 then we have
V(n002) ~= I1*R2 = 1.144 V

This is so because of the 'golden rules': The op amp feedback keeps V- at zero, and essentially no current flows into the input pins.

Because R3<<R1, it is not worth finding the exact value of this parallel network, it will be 10 Ohms to within a very close tolerance - but also 10R << 71500 so the feedback at DC is about the same as R2 alone.
-----
Now for V(n007).

First, ignore R10 because it is directly across V1 and V1 does not care.
Then we can find the "Thevenin equivalent" circuit for V1 feeding R5 & R6, call this Veq
This is equivalent to a voltage Veq=(B.V1) with series resistance R5|R6.
It looks like this

GND---[Veq---Req]---v(n007)

Veq = 1.25*(215/(215+8.87))=1.20
Req = 8.52k

B is found from the potential divider equation: R6/(R6+R5) = 0.96
The equivent series resistance is R5|R6 because an ideal voltage source has no resistance. Thus current in or out of the divider R6/(R6+R5) sees a resistance R5|R6.
----
Now we tie n002 to n007 using R7:

GND---v(n007)---R7---x---Req---Veq---GND
==================
n007 = 1.144 + (1.2-1.144)*(R7/(R7+Req))
= 1.144 + 0.056*0.34
= 1.16304
 
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