luckypearl25
Member level 2
I used the miller's theorem to calculate the transfer function of a common source amplfier which has a capacitance between gate and drain .First calculated without the miller theorem i get a zero at gm/C
but when i implement miller's theorem i don get any zero.and the poles have changed a little .why does the miller theorem fail here .are there any restrictions on its usage..
but when i implement miller's theorem i don get any zero.and the poles have changed a little .why does the miller theorem fail here .are there any restrictions on its usage..