sonaiko
Junior Member level 2
FFT for x(t)=cos(2 pi f0 t) is simply a delta function at frequency of f0, with a certain amplitude (isnt this amplitude should equal 1/2?)
Does that mean FFT for y(t)=cos(2 pi 2f0 t) is a delta function at frequency of 2f0, with the amplitude half of the previous one? (Based on the rule of f(a)=>F(f/a)/a.
Based on that, since FFT is linear, then FFT for x(t)+y(t) should equal X(f)+Y(f), which means two delta functions one at freq f0 with amp c, and another at freq 2f0 with amp c/2.
is what I said above true?
Does that mean FFT for y(t)=cos(2 pi 2f0 t) is a delta function at frequency of 2f0, with the amplitude half of the previous one? (Based on the rule of f(a)=>F(f/a)/a.
Based on that, since FFT is linear, then FFT for x(t)+y(t) should equal X(f)+Y(f), which means two delta functions one at freq f0 with amp c, and another at freq 2f0 with amp c/2.
is what I said above true?