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how to integrate this ?

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engr.waqas

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Please see attached picture.
where C=0.001 and i(t)= sin(1000 * 2 PI t )
also i(t)=0 for t<=0
 

Dear engr.waqas
Hi
What is your problem , exactly ?
Best Wishes
Goldsmith
 

Hi
Mr.goldsmith
I am doing an online course where I have to find this integration, the issue is after so many professional years of job , I don't remember integration rules :)
 

There is some error in this because the answer is not being accepted by system.
also the link you told does not cover my case :(
 

engr.waqas,

Why don't you tell us what you think the answer is, and then we will tell you if you are correct.

Ratch
 
I don't know the answer :) I am simply putting my answers in a software which is indicating answer is wrong .
 

engr.waqas,

I think you had better show us how you arrived at your answer so we can critique it.

Ratch
 

My answer is
-cos (2000 * PI * t ) / (2 * PI ) + C

which is again wrong :( but I'm sure it is very close to true answer
 

engr.waqas,

What is "C" in your answer? Is it the 0.001 capacitor?

Ratch
 

No C is a constant from integration which in this case is given as 0. But his answer omits C (Farads).
Perhaps try various ascii versions of my answer given twice previously
 

SunnySkyguy,

No C is a constant from integration which in this case is given as 0.

Then perhaps he should use a different symbol to represent the constant of integration. But why is there a constant of integration when a definite integral is being evaluated?

Ratch
 

To be integrable over an infinite intervall, the integrated function must converge, but sin(t) doesn't. Either there is a typo in the problem or it's insolvable.

P.S.: The said problem formulation makes no sense, r or it's mathematically incorrect:
i(t)= sin(1000 * 2 PI t ) also i(t)=0 for t<=0

If you mean i(t)= sin(1000 * 2 PI t ) for t > 0, then you should write it clearly. Also you can change the integration interval to 0 to t.
 

Fvm,

To be integrable over an infinite intervall, the integrated function must converge, but sin(t) doesn't. Either there is a typo in the problem or it's insolvable.

No typo, everything needed to solve the problem is given.

P.S.: The said problem formulation makes no sense, r or it's mathematically incorrect:

The given conditions were that i(t)=0 for t<=0 . So from -∞ to zero, the integral evaluates to zero. Then all we have to do is evaluate (1/C)*∫(sin(2π1000t)dt from 0 to t, that is easily found to be (0.5*(1-cos(2000*π*t)))/π .

Ratch
 
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    FvM

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My answer is
-cos (2000 * PI * t ) / (2 * PI ) + C

which is again wrong :( but I'm sure it is very close to true answer

Because you forget that -cos(x) is the primitive of sin(x), isn't the integral between 0 and t

\[if\;P'(t)=f(t)\;\; then \int_{0}^{t} f(t)\;dt = P(t) - P(0)\]



\[\int_{-\infty}^{t}i(t)\,dt = \int_{0}^{t}i(t)\,dt\] because i(t)=0 if t<=0

Then
\[\frac{1}{C}\int_{0}^{t}\sin{\omega} t\;dt = \frac{1}{{\omega},C} \left( \left( -\cos{\omega} t \right )-\left(-\cos{\omega}0 \right \,)\right )=\frac{1}{{\omega}\,C} \left(1 -\cos{\omega} t \right )= \frac{(1-\cos{(2000\pi\,t)})}{2\pi}\]
 
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    FvM

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I agree with _eduardo_ , I have the same answer for that in tegral which is the most true one if " i(t)=0 if t<0"
 

7@rB,

I agree with _eduardo_ , I have the same answer for that in tegral which is the most true one if " i(t)=0 if t<0"

I would think you also agree with my answer in post #15, because it is the same one. How is one integral more "true" than another if they are the same?

Ratch
 

The accepted right answer is
(1-cos(2000 * PI * t))/(C*2000 * PI)
But I dont know from where it came ? :) can someone tell me?
 

It's the same solution, that has been derived by Ratch and Eduardo.
 

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