shanmei
Advanced Member level 1
Question 1:
Shown in the right figure, a resistor R2 in series connected with a parallel R1 and C1, which forms a pole :1/(R1*C), and a zero : 1/(( R1//R2) *C).
The zero contributed by the effective resistor is the R1//R2, how to intuitively understand it?
Question 2:
Shown in the left figure, a resistor R and cap C in series connected, which forms a pole at 0, and a zero at 1/(R*C). At zero point frequency( f=/(2*pi*R*C), the equivalent impedance is sqrt(2)* R.
Then for the right figure,at pole frequency( 1/(2*pi*R1*C), why the equivalent impedance is not equal to (R1+R2)/sqrt(2)?
At zero frequency (1/(2*pi*(R1//R2)*C), why the equivalent is not equal to sqrt(2)*R2
Thanks.
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