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[SOLVED] Gain in a diode connected load for a Common Source configuration

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iVenky

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Hello. I have a doubt in a topic in the CMOS book by Razavi. It's in page 57. Anyway I will tell you the question

Consider the drain of the common source is connected to a diode connected NMOS. It can be seen clearly that

Gain Av= gm1/gm2. (approx) and at the same time Av= (W/L)1 / (W/L)2.

If we write gm in terms of W/L and overdrive voltage, we get Av to be inversely proportional to the overdrive of transistor 2 and directly proportional to the overdrive of transistor 1. But if we find Av , by equating the drain current of both the transistors (which is same by the way) then Av seems to be directly proportional to the overdrive of transistor 2 and inversely proportional to the overdrive of transistor 1. Razavi has left for the reader to find out the reason behind this. I couldn't find out the reason.

Could you please help me with this?

Thanks in advance.
 

Hello my friend
How are you?!
Can you attach that page here ? i have not that book . thus perhaps i can help you.
Best Wishes
Goldsmith
 

No my mean was not the number of page . my mean was the page. as i said i haven't that book .
 

Okay. I have attached the pages.


Read from the equation that is at the bottom of the first page. Note that: Gain Av is equal to the ratio of aspect ratios and at the same time it is also equal to the ratio of the transconductances.

Thanks in advance.
 

See page 21 of the same book.

there are multiple formulae for the same 'gm'. In one, overdrive is inversely proportional and in one, its directly proportional. Both are equivalent.
 

See page 21 of the same book.

there are multiple formulae for the same 'gm'. In one, overdrive is inversely proportional and in one, its directly proportional. Both are equivalent.

I got it. If Vov1 is more than Vov2 then W/L2 should be very much greater than W/L1 (i.e., squared) so that Av becomes lesser and hence it is directly proportional to Vov2 and inversely proportional to Vov1.
 

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