analog_chip
Full Member level 1

Let us consider two inductors L1 and L2 and let M12 be the mutual inductance with turn ratio 1.
Literature says V1/V2=I2/I1=1=turn ratio
This is not intuitive to me. If the coils are slightly displaced so that coupling is weak then how V1=V2? It should be less..right?
I understand that M12=k*sqrt(M1M2) will reduce but why not the induced voltage?
Literature says V1/V2=I2/I1=1=turn ratio
This is not intuitive to me. If the coils are slightly displaced so that coupling is weak then how V1=V2? It should be less..right?
I understand that M12=k*sqrt(M1M2) will reduce but why not the induced voltage?