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no, not really, both are base-band. Thats why I said you need to know the difference.
Base-band signals generally occupy entire bandwidth available to them, reason is that they are digital and digital signals will need all the bandwidth (although we can reduce this)
Thanks
You are right, about Baseband definition, I have quoted the definition from SKLAR but still some misconception, Is it possible to send a baseband signal from one place to another thru some baseband channel without Line Coding
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