sajib333
Newbie level 6
For Amplitude Modulation, it is understood that the bandwidth of a passband signal is always twice as much as that of a baseband signal, for example
if the bandwidth/max frequency of a message/baseband signal is 1 kHz and a carrier of 1 MHz is modulated with this baseband, then a "sum" frequency is produced at 1 MHz + 1 kHz, and a difference frequency is produced at 1 MHz - 1 kHz. Hence, the passband bandwidth is 2 KHz.
Now, My question is what would have been the bandwidth of the baseband signal, if it were a Frequency Modulation (FM)? Consider the frequency remains same, i.e. Baseband signal is 1 KHz and Carrier signal is 1 MHz.
Thanks in Advance.
if the bandwidth/max frequency of a message/baseband signal is 1 kHz and a carrier of 1 MHz is modulated with this baseband, then a "sum" frequency is produced at 1 MHz + 1 kHz, and a difference frequency is produced at 1 MHz - 1 kHz. Hence, the passband bandwidth is 2 KHz.
Now, My question is what would have been the bandwidth of the baseband signal, if it were a Frequency Modulation (FM)? Consider the frequency remains same, i.e. Baseband signal is 1 KHz and Carrier signal is 1 MHz.
Thanks in Advance.