cl254
Junior Member level 2
Hi Everyone,
After simulating a chop amp, it seems like looking at the input referred noise, the 1/f noise is moved to the modulation freq (clk freq), but when I look at the output referred noise, I still see 1/f noise at DC level. I thought the 1/f noise should have been modulated up by the demodulator (the second modulator) when I look at output referred noise.
The input referred noise looks right because the noise at output is divided by the gain, so the shifted 1/f appears right.
Have I interpreted "output referred noise" wrong?
Thanks.
After simulating a chop amp, it seems like looking at the input referred noise, the 1/f noise is moved to the modulation freq (clk freq), but when I look at the output referred noise, I still see 1/f noise at DC level. I thought the 1/f noise should have been modulated up by the demodulator (the second modulator) when I look at output referred noise.
The input referred noise looks right because the noise at output is divided by the gain, so the shifted 1/f appears right.
Have I interpreted "output referred noise" wrong?
Thanks.