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[SOLVED] Backward-difference system is high pass filter?

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anix

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Can someone prove to me how the backward-difference system is a high pass filter:

y[n] = x[n]-x[n-1]
 

Mathematically you can z-transform the sequence having:

y(z) = x(z) - z-1*x(z) = x(z)*(1-z-1)

since z-1 = e

H(jω) = 1 - e

Then, after some math, we have the frequency response:

|H(jω)|2 = 4*sin2(ω/2) defined in the rage [-Π,Π]

you can see easily that it is increasing with the frequency.
In a more intuitive way, at zero frequency x(n) = x(n-1) ==> y(n) = 0.
For low frequency the variation of x is slow so that x(n) ≈ x(n-1) ==> y(n) = small value
For high frequency the variation of x is fast so that x(n) ≠ x(n-1) ==> y(n) = high value

By the way x(n) - x(n-1) is the discrete derivative of x
 
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    anix

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Thanks a LOT albbg for your help..i couldnt have figured it out that easily..:)
Mathematically you can z-transform the sequence having:

y(z) = x(z) - z-1*x(z) = x(z)*(1-z-1)

since z-1 = e

H(jω) = 1 - e

Then, after some math, we have the frequency response:

|H(jω)|2 = 4*sin2(ω/2) defined in the rage [-Π,Π]

you can see easily that it is increasing with the frequency.
In a more intuitive way, at zero frequency x(n) = x(n-1) ==> y(n) = 0.
For low frequency the variation of x is slow so that x(n) ≈ x(n-1) ==> y(n) = small value
For high frequency the variation of x is fast so that x(n) ≠ x(n-1) ==> y(n) = high value

By the way x(n) - x(n-1) is the discrete derivative of x
 

It would be really helpful if you could show the maths that was involved while deriving the answer. I'm have a similar situation as the question asked and it will help me a lot if you could show the maths. Thank you for your time.
 

OK, math is:

|H(jω)|2 = |1 - e|2

using Euler formula that is e = cos(ω)+j•sin(ω) we have:

|1 - e|2 = |1 - cos(ω) - j•sin(ω)|2 = [1-cos(ω)]2 + sin2(ω) hence:

|1 - e|2 = 1 + cos2(ω) - 2•cos(ω) + sin2(ω) = 2•[1 - cos(ω)]

but, remembering that sin2(x) = 1/2 - cos(2•x)/2 we will have:

|1 - e|2 = 2•[1 - cos(ω)] = 2•[2•sin2(ω/2)] = 4•sin2(ω/2)
 
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    anix

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I am guessing we need to square the frequency response (H(jω)2) to get rid of the imaginary part of the e ? Am I right?
OK, math is:

|H(jω)|2 = |1 - e|2

using Euler formula that is e = cos(ω)+j•sin(ω) we have:

|1 - e|2 = |1 - cos(ω) - j•sin(ω)|2 = [1-cos(ω)]2 + sin2(ω) hence:

|1 - e|2 = 1 + cos2(ω) - 2•cos(ω) + sin2(ω) = 2•[1 - cos(ω)]

but, remembering that sin2(x) = 1/2 - cos(2•x)/2 we will have:

|1 - e|2 = 2•[1 - cos(ω)] = 2•[2•sin2(ω/2)] = 4•sin2(ω/2)
 

The frequency response is the square of the modulus |H(jω)|2; it is a vector of real numbers.

The square of a complex number is a complex number, in fact consider y = a + jb

y2 = (a + jb)2 = (a + jb)•(a + jb) = a2 - b2 +2jab
 
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Thank you again albbg
 

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