mona123
Member level 5
Why peak to peak voltage swings to 2*Vcc when supply voltage is only Vcc in class A amplifier? Where does extra Vcc excursion come from? Will it depend on whether I use an inductor at collector or not? Thanks.
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Will it depend on whether I use an inductor at collector or not?
Exactly. Consider two points:
- the inductor's stored energy is able to drive out above Vcc
- the average voltage across an inductor is zero, so the DC level at a class A output stage must equal Vcc. An output voltage swinging down to zero implies a maximum of 2*Vcc in return, assuming a symmetrical waveform.
Why Vb*gm*RL can only reach Vcc? ac small signal has nothing to do with DC . Thats what is confusing me.
Hi mfding,
Thanks for the answer. I agree with what you are saying about collector voltage cannot go below 0 (more like VCEsat) and that it will be clipped but nothing prevents instantaneous voltage to rise beyond 2*Vcc. The assumption you are making is waveform is pure sinusoid. In that case too lets say a sinusoid can go to 3*Vcc, wont't upper side of waveform be unclipped and lower side will be clipped to 0 or VCEsat? I think now I understand that its us who force it to 2*Vcc peak with proper termination so that ouput waveform is sinusoidal for linearity in class A. Do you guys agree?