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[SOLVED] Impedance bandwidth is 3.5%

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neelakasherniche

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What is the meaning of "Impedance bandwidth is 3.5%", how is this % coming in to play. Is this same as the fractional bandwidth =(f2-f1)/fc

fc=(f1+f2)/2

If its not then please explain.


Thank you
 

It's clear...
The impedance matching circuit supplies a reasonable matching ( by any definition for instance VSWR or RL or Insertion Loss etc ) in a certain fraction of its bandwidth compare to center frequency.
 
I am repeating what I have understood from your statement. So impedance bandwidth is the particular bandwidth among the total bandwidth of any antenna where the impedance matching is perfect. For example we are using a 50ohm impedance to between the the circuit and the antenna, say, the antenna can achieve a bandwidth of 3Ghz to 10Ghz but the impedance remains at 50ohm at the range of say, 5ghz to 8.5Ghz so this particular band is the impedance bandwidth is it so? Correct me if i am wrong.

Thank you
 

neelakasherniche said:
I am repeating what I have understood from your statement. So impedance bandwidth is the particular bandwidth among the total bandwidth of any antenna where the impedance matching is perfect. For example we are using a 50ohm impedance to between the the circuit and the antenna, say, the antenna can achieve a bandwidth of 3Ghz to 10Ghz but the impedance remains at 50ohm at the range of say, 5ghz to 8.5Ghz so this particular band is the impedance bandwidth is it so? Correct me if i am wrong.

Thank you
Click to expand...
That's right..It's also called as "Efficient/Useful Bandwidth".
 
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