palmeiras
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Hello everyone!
Considering a LC-tank oscillator, the single-ended output voltage amplitude is given by:
Vtank = ( Bias_current * Equivalent parallel resistance_tank) / PI
Hower, this equation is converted to the next one for high frequencies:
Vtank ~ bias_current * Equivalent parallel resistance_tank
Why? What did happen with "PI"?
Thank you very much
Considering a LC-tank oscillator, the single-ended output voltage amplitude is given by:
Vtank = ( Bias_current * Equivalent parallel resistance_tank) / PI
Hower, this equation is converted to the next one for high frequencies:
Vtank ~ bias_current * Equivalent parallel resistance_tank
Why? What did happen with "PI"?
Thank you very much