cancer06
Junior Member level 2
I am having difficulty understanding this phenomenon. I hope someone can chime in and let me out of this intellectual pit.
When I use correlation of 1 in both input and output (4*4 MIMO) I still get capacity more then the value when using SISO. Shouldnt it be equal to the SISO capacity. Does that have something to do with the Rayleigh channel used.
Please do answer even if you thing its something obvious.
Thanks a lot
When I use correlation of 1 in both input and output (4*4 MIMO) I still get capacity more then the value when using SISO. Shouldnt it be equal to the SISO capacity. Does that have something to do with the Rayleigh channel used.
Please do answer even if you thing its something obvious.
Thanks a lot