i have some doubts also.
in my simulation, bpf f0=38K, gain@38k=5, then i add a non-inverting amplifier to form a loop, but the oscillating frequency is related to the loop gain. when loop gain=5, oscillating frequency is only 27K, until loop gain=1.05, oscillating frequency = 37.7K.
i want the oscillating frequency be equal to f0(38K) precisely, how to do it?
besides, the loop gain will change with process and temp, how to deal with this?
thanks.
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how to make loop gain=1 precisely in all pvt (process, supply voltage, temp)?
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besides, if loop gain is larger than 1, why the oscillation frequency will change (not @ f0)? and the larger the loop gain, the larger the oscillation frequency voilation (relative to f0). what is the reason?
in my understanding, if loop gain is larger than 1, the oscillation frequency will be f0 also, just the amplitude will become very large, but can be limited by supply rail. where is wrong for me?
ok, i know that.
if the bpf gain=R2*R3/R1/R4, and non-inverting amplifier gain=0.2, then, what should i do to suppress the loop gain alteration with process?
besides, is OP bandwidth or slew rate related to the loop gain alteration?
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