morangie18
Newbie level 1

Scenario to help with my question:
A flat broadband noise spectrum well above the thermal noise floor existis. A fixed CW carrier is introduced into the spectrum.
My question:
Assuming a 1Hz measurement bandwidth, the ratio of the carrier to noise level will be called our SNRin. Now introduce an -3dB attenuator, flat across an infinite bandwidth. I think that if I were to physically measure this on a specturm analyzer (unfortunately not an option for me right now) I would expect to see both the noise floor and carrier level drop by 3dB if measuring at the attenuator output. So if both dropped by 3dB, SNRout is the same as my SNRin isn't it?
So how can that -3dB attenuator have a 3dB noise figure if it appears my signal to noise ratio didn't actually change. Assuming no matter what that the carrier will experience a full 3dB drop through the attenuator, I would assume the noise level could then not change at all to achieve the 3dB NF I know that attenuator to have.
I fear the explanation will lead to a discussion on noise temperatures which is hazy for me since I've never understood how to relate the mathematical device of 'noise temperature' to a physical noise power (say in a 1Hz BW for simplicity).
Thanks in advance for straightening me out (if you can).
A flat broadband noise spectrum well above the thermal noise floor existis. A fixed CW carrier is introduced into the spectrum.
My question:
Assuming a 1Hz measurement bandwidth, the ratio of the carrier to noise level will be called our SNRin. Now introduce an -3dB attenuator, flat across an infinite bandwidth. I think that if I were to physically measure this on a specturm analyzer (unfortunately not an option for me right now) I would expect to see both the noise floor and carrier level drop by 3dB if measuring at the attenuator output. So if both dropped by 3dB, SNRout is the same as my SNRin isn't it?
So how can that -3dB attenuator have a 3dB noise figure if it appears my signal to noise ratio didn't actually change. Assuming no matter what that the carrier will experience a full 3dB drop through the attenuator, I would assume the noise level could then not change at all to achieve the 3dB NF I know that attenuator to have.
I fear the explanation will lead to a discussion on noise temperatures which is hazy for me since I've never understood how to relate the mathematical device of 'noise temperature' to a physical noise power (say in a 1Hz BW for simplicity).
Thanks in advance for straightening me out (if you can).