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Fully differential opamp is inverting or non inverting amplifier ?

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Junus2012

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Hello,

attached the picture of the fully differential closed loop feedback, which one of the configuration should be the standard one ? many authors refer to config 1 and mostly to config 2, while the first circuit provides inverting differerntial output to the input and the latter is non-inverting,

New Doc 13.jpg
 

Its inverting. 2 is correct.

Get familiar with a simulation tool to look at this stuff. LTSpice is free and has many differential amplifiers in its library (LTC6362).
 
This question is actually totally irrelevant. You have differential outputs and the signal is the difference between the voltages of the two single ended outputs. You simply designate one of them as Out+ and the other as Out-. Then the output differential signal is (Out+)-(Out-). If you want the differential output to be 180deg out of phase with respect to input and the output difference is like that, then good, you have it. If the output difference is in phase with input, then you just designate the output you called previously Out- as Out+ now and vice versa.
What is important is not which one is + and - but what is the polarity of the two feedback loops - they have to be negative feedbacks. And they are in both figures you posted.
 
Thank you friends

I just wanted to follow the standard, Gray and Jakob they refer to it as inverting ampliifer, other authors deal with it as a non inverting amplifier,
any way as Suta expalined the important thing is to assure the negative feedback connection.

Here I have an importnat question, can I consider the differential ampliifer as two inverting amplifier (the first inverter on the vin+ and the other on vin-),
why this should be important ?

because we know that inverting ampliifer is not suffering fron input common mode voltage variation, thus generally the inverting amplifier are preferable in case to obtain high CMRR.
if the fully differential amplifier is a composition of equivelant two inverting amplifier then it should also has the same charasterictics of the inverting amplifier regarding the CMRR

Thanks
 

we know that inverting amplifier is not suffering fron input common mode voltage variation
Due to the trivial fact that the non-inverting input is tied to ground respectively fixed voltage.

thus generally the inverting amplifier are preferable in case to obtain high CMRR.
CMRR is a property of the OP or generally a differential amplifier, it can't be determined for a circuit that isn't exposed to common mode voltage. In so far the statement is wrong.

if the fully differential amplifier is a composition of equivelant two inverting amplifier then it should also has the same charasterictics of the inverting amplifier regarding the CMRR
No it isn't.
 
Here I have an importnat question, can I consider the differential ampliifer as two inverting amplifier (the first inverter on the vin+ and the other on vin-),
why this should be important ?

because we know that inverting ampliifer is not suffering fron input common mode voltage variation, thus generally the inverting amplifier are preferable in case to obtain high CMRR.
if the fully differential amplifier is a composition of equivelant two inverting amplifier then it should also has the same charasterictics of the inverting amplifier regarding the CMRR

Thanks

I think you can simplistically think of it as two symmetric inverting amplifiers, like a mental model. Yes, as usual, even for fully differential amplifiers you will have a virtual short at the input of the OTA (or opamp). It is a differential short, but the common mode is whatever you design for, not like in the single-ended case where usually the + input is connected to gnd. It might happen that in the fully differential case you have virtual differential short for the inputs but still varying input common-mode voltage and in this case you need a good CMRR. CMRR is better by definition for fully differential circuits but any asymmetries, being systematic or random will spoil it and reduce it.
 
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