fgifriday
Newbie level 1
Could someone help me on this, please
I am studying about the newly developed non-linear phase Generalized DFT proposed by Akansu.
https://web.njit.edu/~akansu/PAPERS/Akansu-Agirman Sarnoff2009.pdf
https://web.njit.edu/~akansu/PAPERS/Akansu-AgirmanEUSIPCO2009.pdf
(It's not that long, if you have time, please help)
The system is basically replacing IFFT and FFT block in the OFDM system with DFT matrix * G matrix
where G can be anything, for example rational function, diagonal matrix, or defined by the phase shaping function
Now, I applied this so-called GDFT into my MIMO-OFDM system over the correlated multipath channel that also considers Rician-K factor, angle of arrival/departure, doppler shift and so or, making it as realistic as possible
My question is, by using the non-linear phase transform, does it make the OFDM signal not to be orthogonal?
My result is that the GDFT performs a little bit better than traditional DFT if there is deep fade in the channel and there's only one receive antenna. But for other no. of receive antenna, the results are comparable to the traditional DFT system.
If you can, could you explain why is the result like this?
I mean, I am confused a bit. Does normally non-linearity is undesired in OFDM? but in his paper, he said it can be applied to CDMA and OFDM... Or is there any difference between non-linear amplitude and non-linear phase?
Normally you talk about non-linear phase noise from the amplifier, right? I think this non-linearity acts the different way, am I right?
Also, about the test based on correlation metric. Does he mean we choose optimize the dft parameter a2 and b2 in order to get lowest BER? In the code, he suggest that Rcc should be used with OFDM, but why the correlation Rcc of the GDFT for OFDM case is higher than traditional DFT? Should it be lower for it to be beneficial to OFDM system?
Please, anyone, please help me, I really need answer urgently.
Thanks in advance, guys
I am studying about the newly developed non-linear phase Generalized DFT proposed by Akansu.
https://web.njit.edu/~akansu/PAPERS/Akansu-Agirman Sarnoff2009.pdf
https://web.njit.edu/~akansu/PAPERS/Akansu-AgirmanEUSIPCO2009.pdf
(It's not that long, if you have time, please help)
The system is basically replacing IFFT and FFT block in the OFDM system with DFT matrix * G matrix
where G can be anything, for example rational function, diagonal matrix, or defined by the phase shaping function
Now, I applied this so-called GDFT into my MIMO-OFDM system over the correlated multipath channel that also considers Rician-K factor, angle of arrival/departure, doppler shift and so or, making it as realistic as possible
My question is, by using the non-linear phase transform, does it make the OFDM signal not to be orthogonal?
My result is that the GDFT performs a little bit better than traditional DFT if there is deep fade in the channel and there's only one receive antenna. But for other no. of receive antenna, the results are comparable to the traditional DFT system.
If you can, could you explain why is the result like this?
I mean, I am confused a bit. Does normally non-linearity is undesired in OFDM? but in his paper, he said it can be applied to CDMA and OFDM... Or is there any difference between non-linear amplitude and non-linear phase?
Normally you talk about non-linear phase noise from the amplifier, right? I think this non-linearity acts the different way, am I right?
Also, about the test based on correlation metric. Does he mean we choose optimize the dft parameter a2 and b2 in order to get lowest BER? In the code, he suggest that Rcc should be used with OFDM, but why the correlation Rcc of the GDFT for OFDM case is higher than traditional DFT? Should it be lower for it to be beneficial to OFDM system?
Please, anyone, please help me, I really need answer urgently.
Thanks in advance, guys